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Old 08-29-16, 09:30 PM
Paulo Paulo is offline
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Question Homosexuality

As far as I'm aware, in the Bible what is specifically forbidden in the Law is **** intercourse between 2 men. I'm not sure if the Bible mentions oral sex or masturbation?

In Sodom and Gomorrah, things got overheated and men were literally raping other men.

I believe some people are gay. In the early days of my Faith I had trouble accepting that. Life has taught me otherwise.

Is it only explicitly **** intercourse which is forbidden, if we take the Bible literally?

And why? Does **** intercourse between men in excess cause things to get 'overheated', like in Sodom and Gomorrah?
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Old 08-30-16, 02:56 PM
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One of the key words here is fornication which is consensual sexual intercourse between people who are not married. (dictionary definition see www.m-w.com) The Bible says quite a bit about fornication specifically that we are not to do it and makes no differentiation about the type of intercourse. Some examples are 1Corinthians 6:18 "Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body." 1Thesslonins 4:3 "For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication:" 1Corinthians 7:2 "Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband." Note that in this verse as well as Genesis 2:24 "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." God defines marriage as being a relationship between a man and a woman. Romans 1 tells us that one of the things that brings God's wrath is same gender sexual contact.

So did God create some people to be satisfied only by what brings His wrath and judgment? Is that idea consistent with what we know of God's nature: God who created humans to be in eternal fellowship with Himself, God who so loved the world that He was willing to sacrifice His only begotten on to save humans from sin? Did He create some deliberately to be dammed? 2Peter 3:9 answers that very specifically "The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance." So no God did not create people to have same gender sexual preferences. Social and psychological influence are major factors as is exposure to sexual abuse and "conditioning". I have not seen studies that show that biological disruptions relate to sin (that a long standing societal pattern of sin disrupts some individuals body chemistry) but it would not shock me. It is very important to remember that it is not just people who want to have sex with others of the same gender who are told not to but all people are told that sex is to be only a part of marriage. God is no happier about heterosexual sin than about homosexual sin.

Why do certain practices cause things to get "overheated"? Because when sin is accepted sin in and of itself becomes a driving passion. When humans acknowledge no standard of good and right sin and wrong are unchecked and the fallen nature of humans goes wild. That is true not just with one type of sexual activity but in places where a woman can not safely walk down the street without being assaulted and children are kidnapped and abused by whichever gender. It is the same kind of riot mentality that causes stores to be looted in the name of protesting injustice and people to be shot just for existing.
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And the King shall answer and say unto them, Verily I say unto you, Inasmuch as ye have done it unto one of the least of these my brethren, ye have done it unto me. ... Then shall he answer them, saying, Verily I say unto you, Inasmuch as ye did it not to one of the least of these, ye did it not to me. Matthew 25:40 & 45

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Old 08-30-16, 06:47 PM
Paulo Paulo is offline
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Ann, I'm a little bit confused because in some of the translations of the Bible I've seen, it always seems to use the word 'adultery' instead of 'fornication'?
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Old 08-30-16, 10:08 PM
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By definition fornication is sex w someone to whom you are not married. In common usage fornication is an unmarried person having sex outside marriage. Adultery is a married person having sex with someone who is not their spouse. Biblically there was a death penalty for adultery in many circumstances.
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1Peter 2:24 Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.

And the King shall answer and say unto them, Verily I say unto you, Inasmuch as ye have done it unto one of the least of these my brethren, ye have done it unto me. ... Then shall he answer them, saying, Verily I say unto you, Inasmuch as ye did it not to one of the least of these, ye did it not to me. Matthew 25:40 & 45

www.caringhandsministries.com
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Old 08-30-16, 11:17 PM
Bob Carabbio Bob Carabbio is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Paulo View Post
As far as I'm aware, in the Bible what is specifically forbidden in the Law is **** intercourse between 2 men.
That appears to to be the truth of the matter. "Temptation" isn't an issue (since Jesus was "tempted IN EVERY RESPECT as we are - without Sin).

Harold Ockengae (Former Pastor for 33 years starting in 1936 of Park St Congregationalist Church, Boston) always said that "You CAN'T KEEP the birds from flying overhead, but you CAN prevent them from building a nest in your hair".

And consequently BEING a Homosexual (making the assumption that it IS a naturally occurring condition in humans) is NOT SIN - but when a homosexual allows their TEMPTATION to "Conceive", and begin to translate into Physical ACTIVITY - the SIN issue comes in.

Sexual activity between two humans of the SAME SEX is INVARIABLY CONDEMNED in the Bible - NO EXCEPTIONS.

Lots of normal human behaviors are SINFUL in nature, so whether it's "Normal or not" isn't important. It's normal for humans to HATE, to STEAL, to MURDER, to be unfaithful to their Spouse. COmpletely NORMAL - and completely SINFUL as well.

Quote:
I'm not sure if the Bible mentions oral sex or masturbation?
Nope it doesn't. Be nice if it did.

Quote:
Is it only explicitly **** intercourse which is forbidden, if we take the Bible literally?
Nope - Answered above. AND OF COURSE two Men (or two Women) CAN'T HAVE INTERCOURSE (The parts don't fit).

AND, Of Course, Homosexual "MARRIAGE" is also a total impossibility for the same reason.

Biblical Marriage appears to consist of the "Joining of flesh" (just ask Jacob), and since a homosexual Couple is INCAPABLE of doing that, "Marriage" can't exist.

LEGALLY, they can "marry" of course, and have all the economic and access advantages of the Civil Contract - which has nothing to do with Biblical Marriage.
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Old 08-31-16, 08:46 AM
Paulo Paulo is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Bob Carabbio View Post
Nope it doesn't. Be nice if it did.
The Bible doesn't explicitly mention masturbation, but it does say to 'wash one's whole body in water' after a release of semen. I try and follow that, in the spirit if not in the letter, by making sure I've washed off all semen, if not washed 'whole body', after any release.

Last edited by Paulo; 08-31-16 at 09:07 AM.
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Old 08-31-16, 11:08 PM
Bob Carabbio Bob Carabbio is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Paulo View Post
The Bible doesn't explicitly mention masturbation, but it does say to 'wash one's whole body in water' after a release of semen. I try and follow that, in the spirit if not in the letter, by making sure I've washed off all semen, if not washed 'whole body', after any release.
I'm familiar with the scripture you cite, but PERSONALLY I don't do any more that clean the immediate areas, and change underware.
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Old 09-01-16, 12:08 AM
Paulo Paulo is offline
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It just always made sense to me to use water, from when I started getting releases. I was doing that before I'd touched a Bible.
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